Ok, I need explanations, cause I think my answer right now is "James Cameron is a retard".
Terminator 1: Skynet sends Arnold back to stop John Connor from being born. John Connor sends Kyle Reese back to stop Arnold, and unintentionally, makes him (Connor) get born in the first place.
So, Skynet tried stopping him from being born which prompted him to send stopmeasures which made him be born in the first place? .... whaasfasdf;kjaa;s2390oiwkegdag. How did he exist before the events in the future that made him send his father back to make him. O_o
Terminator 2: Somehow it is OK. Arnold melts, Skynet is prevented from being made. It's still based off T1 making no sense though.
Terminator 3: Skynet (which was prevented in T2), sends bitchbot9000 back in time to kill John (who rather than be the badass 10 year old budding resistance leader, is now a total pussy) . How. They were prevented from existing in T2. There should be no Skynet to do this.
Terminator 4: John Connor is like Lol@Kyle Reese. He bangs my mom 30 years ago in like, 5 years. Or something like that. This is technically a prequel to the first movie, even though its in the future! WOO
and then if you think about it, if Skynet was prevented from existing in Terminator 2, NONE of this crap should happen, period. So its just a big mess. I was given the answer that "all 4 movies are happening at the same time", except that makes no sense either! How can the past be happening at the same time as the future. and how can either be happening at the same time as the present.
SOMEONE EXPLAIN.